Here is my question for Oligarch Sanders.

No matter how noble he thinks he is or he pretends to be;

No matter how noble he thinks his cause is;

No matter how deserving he thinks his proposed recipients are;

No matter how evil he thinks the wealthy are;

No matter how greedy he thinks the wealthy are;

No matter how big a pile of money the wealthy may have;

No matter how much money he thinks is “enough” or how much money he thinks is “too much”;

Why does he feel he has a claim on the lawfully earned income/property of another person?

What gives him the right to simply declare that certain people, who played by the rules and amassed already taxed wealth, should be relieved of said wealth, at point of arms, because he wants to use it for his purposes?

I would like for him to explain why he feels he has the right to steal someone else’s money because he simply wants it for what he considers a “better use” or a “good cause”.

I would like for him to explain why it is he thinks one person should be forced to work for the benefit of other people.

I would like for him to explain to me, in simple terms, why this isn’t flat-out theft and how it differs from same.

In the way of example, I give you this; if my neighbor is poor and needy and I give my own money of my own free will to them to help them out, it is considered quite magnanimous and rightfully so.

If at gunpoint, I expropriate funds from the richest man in town and give this money to the poor family it is considered a crime and rightfully so.

However, if through the machinations of government, I get the congress to pass and enforce a tax, again, at the point of arms I would add, and then redistribute the money so taxed, is it then to be considered a noble thing?

How does it differ from the aforementioned larceny?

Why exactly did the people taxed suddenly lose their rights to their lawfully owned wealth and property?

Why is it considered greed for the wealthy to want to keep their money but not so when others want to take that money, offering nothing in return?

Is the pervasive hand of government the thing which ennobles this entire enterprise?

Is the imprimatur of Oligarch Bernie and his merry band of thieves something we are all supposed to unquestioningly assume makes this all moral and proper?

And finally, what do you think the people so taxed will do in the future in response to the larcenous tax rates being levied upon them?

 

Bernie’s stated goal is to reduce the inequality of wealth in America but his hidden agenda is to make reliable Democrat voters out of the poor through empty promises and economic entrapment.

In service of this he unsurprisingly utters that tired old canard, “Make them pay their fair share”.

I am amazed that some people think that the word “fair” means 1% of the folks are forced to pay over 40% of the taxes.

Some fun “Tax Year 2022” facts which can be found here:

The top 1% of taxpayers pays 40.4% of the tax take; the top 5% pays 61.0% of the taxes and the top 10% pays 72.0% of the taxes collected.

The richest 1,400 taxpayers in this country pay more income tax than the bottom 70 million taxpayers.

Is this really “their fair share”?